"Nomen Nescio" ] wrote in message
...

read the question again
Question: Why doesn't the same pressure effect occur for the freezing
point?

The key word here is SAME.

As temp. approaches 0 deg.C, vapor pressure approaches 0 mmHg.

No it doesn't. The vapor pressure of water (and ice) at 0 degC is about 6
mbar (about 4 mmHg). There's nothing special about 0 degC as far as the
vapor pressure is concerned.

Since the boiling
point is the temp where vapor pressure equals atmospheric pressure. The
"SAME
PRESSURE EFFECT" is effectively nonexistent.
Over an atmospheric pressure ranging from say 5 - 14.7 psi, the change in
the melting point
of ice is virtually nonexistent and can be ignored for all practical
purposes in answering
the original question.
You're trying to complicate a question that can be answered quite simply.

But the whole question is *why* is "the change in the melting point of ice
virtually nonexistent". As far as I can see it has nothing to do with the
vapor pressure.

While Rich's comment was not the friendliest I've seen on Usenet, he does
have a point.

Julian Scarfe