"Brett" wrote in message ...
"vince" wrote:
| "Brett" wrote in message
|
|
| | you clearl do not understand either the statement or Irish
History.
| | In the 12th- 15c century "England" had relatively little
influence.
| | That is becasue the military occupation was by anglo normans, but
only
| | nominally in favor of England as opposed to themselves. it was
| | occupation by "English" but only nominally by England.
| |
| | As the BBC puts it
|
| And you totally fail to understand the comment was "Before Henry
VIII
| came to power in 1509 the English had LITTLE INFLUENCE over
Ireland",
| waffling away with comments from a TV show will not change that
fact.
|
| Do you remotely understand the difference between the "English" and
| "England"?

I do and I also have a good idea what is meant by the use of "ENGLISH"
in the section from your reference (I will give you a clue in includes
what you want to call Anglo Normans).

| The influence of "American" corporations for example has little to do
| with the "United States of America" as a government.
|
| In modern times Governments monopolized armies, and government is
| structural. In the 12th to the 15 centuries, military occupation was
| a business, in this cas, an Anglo norman business. "Nulle terre sans
| seigneur" expressed the maxim in law. The feudal lord (the king)
| granted land in return for support. The king had very little
| influence over the private activities of these feudal lords.

Check your reference on how effective their "occupation" was for the
three centuries in question.

| The Feudal system persisted throughout the Plantagenet era. With teh
| coming of the Tudors governemtn chnged its structure. This also
| affected Ireland.
|
| the military occupaiton of Ireland by Anglo nroman Free booters dates
| back to Henry II

Try reading your reference again, a military occupation occurred in the
12th Century, your reference goes into a lot of details on what occurred
from that time until the Tudors.

If you read the Statutes of Kilkenny you will see what the overlords
were trying to do. it is a statute for a military occupation by and
for the benefit of anglo normans, not a statute designed to provide
political control by "England" For one thing, it was written in
FRENCH, the Norman legal language.

It is perfectly correct to say that "England" had little influence.
It is nonsense to say the "English" did not.


Vince