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(vince) wrote in message . com...
(psyshrike) wrote in message . com... Jim Watt wrote in message . .. On 30 Jul 2003 10:23:01 -0700, (psyshrike) SNIP I am actually hoping this is some sort of trend. If you look at PAM.Then look at polution emmissions trading that has been implimented in europe it would seem we are on the verge of some sort of governmental renaissance. Governments that respected civil rights, begat free market economics. no, free markets are a funciton of proerty rights. civil rights ahve nothign to dow with it. you can have a free market is slaves. Possessing the right to express ones own free will, _is_ a property. Calling civil and property rights different, does not effect the fact that both are analytically expressable. Yes, you can have slaves in a free market. But that is not garuanteed, and preventing it would simply be a matter of trading regulations. To presume that ones rights are not traded now, is niave. Property taxes for example, is to pay in advance for something ultimately requisite to the expression of free will. To be a "slave" is of degrees. It is not a noun so much as an adjective. SNIP Is there a bigger movement towards open market implimentations of government services? And how would that effect civil rights and world stability? And what do you call it, a Marketocracy? The problem with the terroism market was a combintiaon of "moral hazard" and insider trading. Moral hazad is the willingness to change the "real world" because of the position you have taken in the market. (same as burning your restaurant when you have insurance) Insider trading is the ability to take advantage of non public information Both are lethal to free markets. Vince Insider trading, is itself functional in a market solely run for predicitive purposes. Or: Markets can be manipulated. THATS THE POINT. The fluctuation of the price of a tradable asset, is itself usefull information that _something_ is going on. Not to mention that insider trading is also usefull from an investigative standpoint. If somebody dumps a load of cash on an event, perhaps one of the black skimask 3 lettered agencies will give them a call to find out why. The basic questions behind "Moral Hazard" a If the predictive capability of PAM is accurate, will it be used in a sufficiently competent manner in order to prevent an act, and effect appropriately the exceptions to accuracy? And would capital inertia cause a net increase in violence? In other words, could you fluctuate the market to cause the black skimasks to show up specifically at somebody elses house. And would there by more of em' running around than there are already? In order for the predictive capability to be effective at all, a competent investigation of a fluctuation would be requisite. That competency implies an ability to spot exceptions to the rule. Therefore, the black skimasks never get called in a non-predictive fluctuation. That makes "Moral Hazard" as an argument something of a red herring. As the effects it describes are based on the failure of investigative capabilities we already use, and depend on. IMHO "Moral Hazard" already exists to any extent to which it would if it was in a formated market, becuase the market already exists in a non formated context. To rephrase my other post, Lend Lease = US involvement in European front of WWII. A decade of blockading Iraq, = The invasion thereto, Stupid US drug laws = choas in south america, and US military involvment. The US made investments, by dictating (Legislating) a short or long position in a particular country or asset, and then had to get involved militarily to make sure the suckers paid up. Call it what you want. Our troops go to war becuase of trades made in this market. Adding a standardized format to encourage transparency doesn't sound like a bad idea to me. -psyshrike |
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(psyshrike) wrote in message . com...
(vince) wrote in message . com... (psyshrike) wrote in message . com... Jim Watt wrote in message . .. On 30 Jul 2003 10:23:01 -0700, (psyshrike) SNIP I am actually hoping this is some sort of trend. If you look at PAM.Then look at polution emmissions trading that has been implimented in europe it would seem we are on the verge of some sort of governmental renaissance. Governments that respected civil rights, begat free market economics. no, free markets are a funciton of property rights. civil rights ahve nothign to do with it. you can have a free market is slaves. Possessing the right to express ones own free will, _is_ a property. no, its a libert i.e. a civil right Calling civil and property rights different, does not effect the fact that both are analytically expressable. There is a fundamental differnce between property rights, which can be marketed and civil rights, which cannot. In the constituion these are differentiated as rights to "property" and "liberty" Yes, you can have slaves in a free market. But that is not garuanteed, and preventing it would simply be a matter of trading regulations. or establishing civil rights. The legal system defines what is property several different ways. To presume that ones rights are not traded now, is niave. Property taxes for example, is to pay in advance for something ultimately requisite to the expression of free will. no. but see below To be a "slave" is of degrees. It is not a noun so much as an adjective. Chattel slavery as described in the ameerican constituional history is a very clear idea. Wage slavery as decribed by somer politicians is not SNIP Is there a bigger movement towards open market implimentations of government services? And how would that effect civil rights and world stability? And what do you call it, a Marketocracy? The problem with the terroism market was a combintiaon of "moral hazard" and insider trading. Moral hazad is the willingness to change the "real world" because of the position you have taken in the market. (same as burning your restaurant when you have insurance) Insider trading is the ability to take advantage of non public information Both are lethal to free markets. Vince Insider trading, is itself functional in a market solely run for predicitive purposes. Or: Markets can be manipulated. THATS THE POINT. The fluctuation of the price of a tradable asset, is itself usefull information that _something_ is going on. no, becsue the insider trading may not be of something of predictive value. assume that as an insider ai know that person X is going to buy a million shares at 9AM. I dont knwo wheyy or care. I do know that take advantage of that knwoledge to manipulate the market. it degrades the predictive power of the market. Not to mention that insider trading is also usefull from an investigative standpoint. If somebody dumps a load of cash on an event, perhaps one of the black skimask 3 lettered agencies will give them a call to find out why. As soon as you start investigating whey peopel trade, the market evaporates. Teh whole point of yusing a market for prediciton is that peope will act on theri econdomic best intersts. if your theroy worked all trades houls be public in the first place. The basic questions behind "Moral Hazard" a If the predictive capability of PAM is accurate, will it be used in a sufficiently competent manner in order to prevent an act, and effect appropriately the exceptions to accuracy? And would capital inertia cause a net increase in violence? In other words, could you fluctuate the market to cause the black skimasks to show up specifically at somebody elses house. And would there by more of em' running around than there are already? In order for the predictive capability to be effective at all, a competent investigation of a fluctuation would be requisite. That competency implies an ability to spot exceptions to the rule. Therefore, the black skimasks never get called in a non-predictive fluctuation. That makes "Moral Hazard" as an argument something of a red herring. As the effects it describes are based on the failure of investigative capabilities we already use, and depend on. IMHO "Moral Hazard" already exists to any extent to which it would if it was in a formated market, becuase the market already exists in a non formated context. To rephrase my other post, Lend Lease = US involvement in European front of WWII. A decade of blockading Iraq, = The invasion thereto, Stupid US drug laws = choas in south america, and US military involvment. The US made investments, by dictating (Legislating) a short or long position in a particular country or asset, and then had to get involved militarily to make sure the suckers paid up. Call it what you want. Our troops go to war becuase of trades made in this market. Adding a standardized format to encourage transparency doesn't sound like a bad idea to me. -psyshrike nonsense. as you point out, to make your market workd you have to investigate the motives of the participants, which woudl automatically prevent them from taking part. Vince . |
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(vince) wrote in message om...
(psyshrike) wrote in message . com... (vince) wrote in message . com... (psyshrike) wrote in message . com... Jim Watt wrote in message . .. On 30 Jul 2003 10:23:01 -0700, (psyshrike) or establishing civil rights. The legal system defines what is property several different ways. Law, is the abstraction of a pragmatic repudiation to some form of human behavior. This does not limit _value_ from being expressed. To compare civil and property rights is to compare two seperate layers of linguistic abstraction. In a book context: (Property 1. Civil 1.1) vs. (Property 1. Civil 2.) How you arrange your chapters does not change the fact, that both property and civil rights are expressable in a capitalistic context. Or: If you can assign a value to an abstract, (intellectual property. A software license for example) that abstraction opens the door for other abstract valuation assignments. Freedom, is marketably expressable even if our forefathers didn't write it that way. If it is expressed up to including the price of life for some, then that is the price. The cost assosciation does not dissapear, even though the cost negates any interest in the purchase. Insider trading, is itself functional in a market solely run for predicitive purposes. Or: Markets can be manipulated. THATS THE POINT. The fluctuation of the price of a tradable asset, is itself usefull information that _something_ is going on. no, becsue the insider trading may not be of something of predictive value. assume that as an insider ai know that person X is going to buy a million shares at 9AM. I dont knwo wheyy or care. I do know that take advantage of that knwoledge to manipulate the market. it degrades the predictive power of the market. I disagree. I think it increase the predictive ability. If big money makes decisions in the market, the sheep follow. The amount of information that gets to the sheep is flexible and in contention ant any given time. The sheep and the theives influence market INstability. Since it is the peaks in the chart we are looking at for prediction, not the flatlines, instability is not a bad thing within limits. Rational purchase motive tends to weigh more heavily on the market, than insiders. In fact even using your example, the insider is making the decision to purchase AFTER the the rational motive purchaser. The sheep actually make up more of the transactions than either of the ration person, or the insider, and they follow both parties. So provided that the count of insiders does not exceed the count of rational purchasers, the market remains predictive. Insider trading, fraud, investigation, regulation, and insider regulation, are rampant in both major US markets today, yet people still invest, and the markets are still predictive. (You shouldn't need examples) nonsense. as you point out, to make your market workd you have to investigate the motives of the participants, which woudl automatically prevent them from taking part. Vince . So, insider trading prevents prediction, and investigation prevents the viability of a market? The truth is somewhere in between me thinks. It sounds like you are either a lawyer or law student. Markets are more abstract than law. The language of law has a pragmatic end. A function. Market fluctuations are symptomatic of infintely variable relaitonships. They have no "reason to be", they are just measurements. Like a thermometer. Market language exists for people to interpret correctly the symptoms. 100% of the decision, is still to the investor, whether his info is correct or not. With law, at least some of the decision making process is influenced by the framer. IMHO: Therefore; in a time where global opinions change faster than they once did; it may be prudent to use market techniques to impliment regulation, particularly in a government service setting. This would provide a floating abstraction for each government service (a stock symbol), the price of which would provide pressure both on the populace and the state, such that "public will" would be easily interpreted, and government fraud would be easier to investigate. Ex. 1. A climbing price indicates a public interest, and precapitalizes the states coffers to respond to that interest. 2. The standardized book keeping mechanism required by transpearent markets would create a publically disclosed paper trail for prosecuting fraud cases. I am quite interested in why this wouldn't work. As I haven't really found a good reason yet. -Psyshrike |
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On 4 Aug 2003 09:28:29 -0700, (psyshrike) wrote:
How you arrange your chapters does not change the fact, that both property and civil rights are expressable in a capitalistic context. Or: Expressable? What the hell does that mean? Other than it just means you can say it, does it mean anything at all? Gary Carson The Complete Book of Hold'em Poker is #9 on the bestseller list List of Top Ten Gambling Books http://garycarson.rediffblogs.com/ Amercian Casino Guide is #13 last week |
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(Gary Carson) wrote in message ...
On 4 Aug 2003 09:28:29 -0700, (psyshrike) wrote: How you arrange your chapters does not change the fact, that both property and civil rights are expressable in a capitalistic context. Or: Expressable? What the hell does that mean? Other than it just means you can say it, does it mean anything at all? He means "expressible". In the jargon of persons infatuated with microeconomics, expressibility is the claim that you can put a variable in a mathematical model. There is a kind of "low grade" economist (or engineer) who believes that if a numerical value can be attached to a concept you can just pop the number in a model. More sophisticated engineers and economists know that you have to separately prove the numerical connection and the fact that the numbers used on various components of the model are meaningful in relation to one another. They also know that explanatory and predictive models are not the same thing See Searching for Certainty: What Scientists Can Know About the Future by John L. Casti London: William Morrow and Company, 1990 one of the key problems with markets is that all the data in the world in the past may not "express" anything about the future. We have complete data about the entire stock market for over one hundred years. There is no epistemic or aleatory uncertainty in the data. Yet it is still almost useless in predicting the market tomorrow. The problem with all futures markets is the ability to "game" the system. use of certain kinds of non public knowledge about the market itself or about the external world makes the market fall apart. Vince |
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(psyshrike) wrote in message . com...
(vince) wrote in message . com... (psyshrike) wrote in message . com... Jim Watt wrote in message . .. On 30 Jul 2003 10:23:01 -0700, (psyshrike) SNIP To rephrase my other post, Lend Lease = US involvement in European front of WWII. But that's wrong though. Lend Lease = US involvement in *Britian's* front of WWII. Since the terms of Lend Lease were implicitly that if Britian gave our technology to France, the US would have to not only bomb France, we'd have to bomb all of Britian's foriegn possessions too. A decade of blockading Iraq, = The invasion thereto, Stupid US drug laws = choas in south america, and US military involvment. US drug laws don't have much to do with South America. But they have a lot to do with the Middle East. Since that's were Hash and Heroine were invented, not South America. The South American cocaine market is strictly run by a bunch of overpaid *Europeon* ****heads, who we keep telling Canada, France, and Russia, "It's not like we care what glaciers do". |
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![]() "ZZBunker" wrote in message om... involvment. US drug laws don't have much to do with South America. But they have a lot to do with the Middle East. Since that's were Hash and Heroine were invented, not South America. Actually heroine was invented in Germany. The South American cocaine market is strictly run by a bunch of overpaid *Europeon* ****heads, I had no idea Pablo Escobar and whoever has suceeded him were European. |
#9
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In article , "TW"
wrote: "ZZBunker" wrote in message om... involvment. US drug laws don't have much to do with South America. But they have a lot to do with the Middle East. Since that's were Hash and Heroine were invented, not South America. Actually heroine was invented in Germany. Heroin (diacetylmorphine) was introduced by Bayer. Ironically, it was hoped to be a less addictive substitute for morphine. It's a derivative of the natural alkaloid morphine, but does not occur in nature. Hash is a plant secretion, more discovered than invented. |
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